Hope this is the right place for this question. I wonder about the following: if my English translation of the Article/Paragraph 27 of The Constitution of the Islamic Republic of Iran is correct, it cites: - "Organizing of meetings and demonstrations without carrying weapons is free, provided these do not injure the Islamic principles". In the speech of the Supreme Leader Khamenei, during the last-Friday's prayer, he declared protests for "illegal", yet did not cite any kind of injury to the Islamic principles they might represent. Furthermore, reading the Constitution, there stands nothing about his right to declare protests for "illegal". So, what is the legal basis for his handling? And, if there is none, then how can any kind of authority in Iran (particularly the police, not to talk about the IRGC/Basij), exercise violence against peaceful protesters? ********* Remember Neda!